EVOLUTION CLASS XII BIOLOGY

 

GANGWAR SIR BAREILLY

BIOLOGY

Class: 12 (2025-26)

CLASS TEST

TIME: 3 HOURS	M.M.: 70

General Instructions:

• This question paper contains 33 questions.

• All questions are compulsory.

• Q.1 to 9 (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)): 9 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.10 to 13 (Assertion Reason Questions): 4 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.14 to 18 (Very Short Answer Questions): 5 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.19 to 26 (Short Answer Questions): 8 questions. Each question carries 2 marks.

• Q.27 to 31 (Long Answer Questions): 5 questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

• Q.32 to 32 (Competency Based Questions): 1 questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

• Q.33 to 33 (Comprehension Based Questions): 1 questions. Each question carries 6 marks.

Topics Covered:

• Evolution

 

Q.NO.	QUESTIONS	MARKS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) Questions 1 to 9 (9 questions × 1 mark each)
1	Which of the following statements best explains the concept of adaptive radiation? A. It refers to the rapid evolution of a single species into many new forms B. It describes the migration of species to new habitats C. It is the process by which species become extinct D. It explains the convergence of unrelated species into similar forms	1
2	Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of evolution? A. Natural selection B. Genetic drift C. Mutation D. Photosynthesis	1
3	According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, which of the following is essential for evolution to occur? A. Variation within a population B. Acquired characteristics C. Uniform environment D. Stable population size	1
4	Which of the following best describes the bottleneck effect in evolution? A. A sudden reduction in population size leading to loss of genetic variation B. The migration of a small group to a new habitat C. The divergence of species due to geographic isolation D. The accumulation of mutations over time	1
5	Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution? A. The wings of bats and birds B. The forelimbs of humans and bats C. The tails of monkeys and apes D. The eyes of humans and octopuses	1
6	Which of the following best explains the role of mutations in evolution? A. They introduce genetic variation B. They always lead to beneficial traits C. They are the primary driver of natural selection D. They are the result of environmental changes	1
7	Which of the following is a key difference between Lamarck's and Darwin's theories of evolution? A. Lamarck proposed that acquired traits are inherited, while Darwin proposed natural selection B. Lamarck proposed natural selection, while Darwin proposed genetic drift C. Lamarck focused on genetic mutations, while Darwin focused on environmental factors D. Lamarck suggested that species remain unchanged, while Darwin suggested gradual change	1
8	Which of the following is true about genetic drift? A. It has a greater effect in small populations B. It is a directional process C. It always increases genetic variation D. It is driven by natural selection	1
9	Which of the following best describes the concept of homology in evolutionary biology? A. Structures in different species that have a common evolutionary origin B. Structures that perform the same function in different species C. The independent evolution of similar features in different lineages D. The process by which species diverge from a common ancestor	1
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS Questions 10 to 13 (4 questions × 1 mark each) Instructions: The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true.
10	Assertion (A): The fossil record provides complete evidence for the theory of evolution.  Reason (R): Fossils are preserved remains of organisms from past geological ages.	1
11	Assertion (A): Homologous organs support the theory of divergent evolution.  Reason (R): Homologous organs have different structures but similar functions.	1
12	Assertion (A): Natural selection acts on phenotypic variations in populations.  Reason (R): Phenotypic variations are always heritable.	1
13	Assertion (A): Genetic drift has a greater impact on smaller populations.  Reason (R): Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies over generations.	1
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 14 to 18 (5 questions × 1 mark each)
14	Explain the significance of the Miller-Urey experiment in the context of chemical evolution.	1
15	Define Darwinian fitness in the context of evolution.	1
16	Describe one example of convergent evolution.	1
17	What role does genetic drift play in small populations?	1
18	How does the Hardy-Weinberg principle relate to evolutionary stability?	1
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 19 to 26 (8 questions × 2 marks each)
19	Explain how industrial melanism in peppered moths demonstrates natural selection.	2
20	Explain how embryological evidence supports the theory of evolution.	2
21	Define adaptive radiation and name the phenomenon observed in Darwin's finches.	2
22	Why is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium rarely observed in nature?	2
23	Explain how Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology, despite their distinct appearances and functions.	2
24	Explain with an example how parallel evolution provides evidence for natural selection.	2
25	What is founder effect? How does it affect genetic diversity?	2
26	Explain how the discovery of fossils of Homo habilis and Homo erectus provides evidence for the evolution of modern humans.	2
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 27 to 31 (5 questions × 5 marks each)
27	Explain Darwin's theory of natural selection with the help of suitable examples.	5
28	Discuss the three types of natural selection (stabilizing, directional, and disruptive) with suitable examples. How do these types of selection contribute to the process of evolution? Also, explain how the concepts of branching descent and natural selection form the foundation of Darwin's theory of evolution.	5
29	Describe the Hardy-Weinberg principle and explain the factors that can disrupt genetic equilibrium.	5
30	Trace the sequence of human evolution as per NCERT, highlighting the key features of each stage. Also, discuss the significance of cranial capacity in understanding human evolution.	5
31	Explain the concept of adaptive radiation with reference to the evolution of Darwin's finches.	5
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS Questions 32 to 32 (1 questions × 5 marks each)
32	The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences. Consider a population of butterflies where the allele frequency for red wings (R) is 0.6 and the frequency for white wings (r) is 0.4. The population undergoes a sudden environmental change that favors white-winged butterflies, leading to a significant decrease in the red-winged population. Analyze the situation and answer the following questions: [1] What evolutionary mechanism is at play in this scenario? [2] How does this environmental change affect the allele frequencies in the population? [3] Predict the long-term impact on the genetic diversity of the butterfly population. [4] Discuss how the Hardy-Weinberg principle might be violated in this case. [5] Propose a conservation strategy to maintain genetic diversity in the butterfly population. A. Describe the concept of natural selection and its role in evolution. B. Explain how allele frequencies change in response to environmental pressures. C. Analyze the consequences of reduced genetic diversity on population survival. D. Evaluate the conditions under which the Hardy-Weinberg principle fails to apply. E. Suggest practical measures to preserve genetic diversity in endangered populations.	5
COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS Questions 33 to 33 (1 questions × 6 marks each)
33	Evolution of Antibiotic Resistance The emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is a classic example of evolution in action. When penicillin was first introduced in the 1940s, it could kill virtually all Staphylococcus aureus strains. Today, over 95% of strains are resistant. This resistance develops through natural selection - random mutations in bacterial DNA occasionally produce resistance genes. In an antibiotic-free environment, these mutations may be neutral or even harmful. However, when antibiotics are present, resistant bacteria survive and reproduce, passing on the resistance genes. The misuse of antibiotics accelerates this process by increasing the selection pressure. Horizontal gene transfer through plasmids further spreads resistance across bacterial populations. (1) Explain how the misuse of antibiotics contributes to the evolution of resistance in bacteria. (2) Compare and contrast vertical and horizontal gene transfer in the context of antibiotic resistance. (3) Propose a public health strategy to slow down the evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.	6

 

BIOTECHNOLOGY :PRINCIPLE AND PROCESS CLAS XII

 

GANGWAR SIR BIOZONE

BIOLOGY

Class: 12 (2025-26)

CLASS TEST

TIME: 1.5 HOURS	M.M.: 42

General Instructions:

• This question paper contains 22 questions.

• All questions are compulsory.

• Q.1 to 5 (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)): 5 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.6 to 8 (Assertion Reason Questions): 3 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.9 to 13 (Very Short Answer Questions): 5 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

• Q.14 to 18 (Short Answer Questions): 5 questions. Each question carries 2 marks.

• Q.19 to 21 (Long Answer Questions): 3 questions. Each question carries 5 marks.

• Q.22 to 22 (Competency Based Questions): 1 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.

Topics Covered:

• Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

 

Q.NO.	QUESTIONS	MARKS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) Questions 1 to 5 (5 questions × 1 mark each)
1	Which of the following is commonly used as 'molecular scissors' in genetic engineering? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase	1
2	In recombinant DNA technology, antibiotic resistance genes are primarily used for: A. Cutting DNA at specific sites B. Linking DNA fragments C. Selecting transformed host cells D. Amplifying target DNA	1
3	During PCR, the step involving cooling the reaction to 50-60°C is meant for: A. Denaturation of DNA B. Extension by Taq polymerase C. Primer annealing D. DNA synthesis	1
4	In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate based on their: A. Charge B. Size C. Colour D. Sequence	1
5	The purpose of adding 'elution' buffer in DNA extraction is to: A. Break open cells to release DNA B. Precipitate DNA from solution C. Dissolve purified DNA D. Separate DNA from proteins	1
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS Questions 6 to 8 (3 questions × 1 mark each) Instructions: The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true.
6	Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors.  Reason (R): They cut DNA at specific recognition sites.	1
7	Assertion (A): E. coli is commonly used as a host organism in recombinant DNA technology.  Reason (R): E. coli has a high growth rate and can multiply quickly.	1
8	Assertion (A): Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments.  Reason (R): DNA fragments move towards the anode due to their negative charge.	1
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 9 to 13 (5 questions × 1 mark each)
9	Explain the role of selectable markers in vector DNA.	1
10	Name the bacterium that produces the restriction enzyme EcoRI.	1
11	What is the function of Taq DNA polymerase in PCR technology?	1
12	Why is agarose gel used as a matrix for DNA separation in gel electrophoresis?	1
13	Analyze why the origin of replication (ori) in a cloning vector must be a high-efficiency sequence.	1
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 14 to 18 (5 questions × 2 marks each)
14	Name the two enzymes that are essential for cutting and joining DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology.	2
15	Explain why only one restriction site in a vector is insufficient for gene cloning.	2
16	A circular plasmid has three restriction sites for EcoRI. If completely digested with EcoRI, how many DNA fragments will be produced? Justify your answer.	2
17	Describe the temperature conditions required for the three main steps of PCR (denaturation, annealing, extension).	2
18	Analyze how antibiotic resistance genes function as selectable markers in plasmid vectors during bacterial transformation.	2
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS Questions 19 to 21 (3 questions × 5 marks each)
19	Explain the three fundamental steps involved in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique. Describe the role of each step in DNA amplification.	5
20	List and describe the five essential tools required for recombinant DNA technology.	5
21	A student performed gel electrophoresis on DNA fragments of 500 bp, 1000 bp, and 2000 bp. Describe the expected results and explain why the fragments separate in this manner. Include the principle behind this separation technique.	5
COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS Questions 22 to 22 (1 questions × 4 marks each)
22	At Innovate Biotech Research Institute, scientists are developing a recombinant DNA vaccine against a novel viral pathogen. The team has isolated the viral surface antigen gene (1200 bp) and needs to insert it into a bacterial plasmid vector (pET-28a) for mass production. They've selected EcoRI restriction sites (G↓AATTC) in both the gene and plasmid, but post-ligation experiments show unexpected multiple band patterns during agarose gel electrophoresis of recombinant plasmids. A. Design a complete process flow chart detailing each biotechnological step from gene isolation to recombinant plasmid insertion B. Evaluate why using the same restriction enzyme for both insert and vector might lead to improper orientation of the gene insert C. Propose a modified restriction enzyme strategy to ensure unidirectional cloning of the antigen gene D. Analyze how improper antibiotic selection pressure could compromise the selection of recombinant colonies E. Create a troubleshooting protocol to identify whether the multiple bands result from partial digestion or plasmid dimer formation	4